CCSP Revolutionary Guide To Exam ISC Dumps
CCSP Free Study Guide! with New Update 830 Exam Questions
To be eligible for the ISC CCSP exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of experience in IT or information security, with at least three years of experience in cloud computing. They must also have a thorough understanding of cloud security principles, concepts, and technologies.
ISC CCSP certification exam is an industry-standard for cloud security professionals. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification ensures that the candidates have the skills and knowledge required to secure cloud environments and provides a competitive advantage in the job market. CCSP exam covers six domains and is a rigorous assessment of the candidate's knowledge and skills in cloud security. If you are an IT professional looking to advance your career in cloud security, the ISC CCSP certification exam is an excellent choice.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Above and beyond general regulations for data privacy and protection, certain types of data are subjected to more rigorous regulations and oversight.
Which of the following is not a regulatory framework for more sensitive or specialized data?
- A. PCI DSS
- B. FIPS 140-2
- C. FedRAMP
- D. HIPAA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIPS 140-2 standard pertains to the certification of cryptographic modules and is not a regulatory framework. The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), the Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP), and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) are all regulatory frameworks for sensitive or specialized data.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What concept does the A represent within the DREAD model?
- A. Authentication
- B. Affected users
- C. Affinity
- D. Authorization
Answer: B
Explanation:
The concept of affected users measures the percentage of users who would be impacted by a successful exploit. Scoring ranges from 0, which would impact no users, to 10, which would impact all users. None of the other options provided is the correct term.
NEW QUESTION # 26
With software-defined networking (SDN), which two types of network operations are segregated to allow for granularity and delegation of administrative access and functions?
- A. Firewalling and forwarding
- B. Filtering and forwarding
- C. Forwarding and protocol
- D. Filtering and firewalling
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
With SDN, the filtering and forwarding capabilities and administration are separated. This allows the cloud provider to build interfaces and management tools for administrative delegation of filtering configuration, without having to allow direct access to underlying network equipment. Firewalling and protocols are both terms related to networks, but they are not components SDN is concerned with.
NEW QUESTION # 27
You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of your customers.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take first?
- A. Take a shapshot of the virtual machines
- B. Notify the customer
- C. Escrow the encryption keys
- D. Copy the data
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a cloud service provider receives an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of their customers, the first action they must take is to notify the customer. This allows the customer to be aware of what was received, as well as to conduct a review to determine if any challenges are necessary or warranted. Taking snapshots of virtual machines, copying data, and escrowing encryption keys are all processes involved in the actual collection of data and should not be performed until the customer has been notified of the request.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Because PaaS implementations are so often used for software development, what is one of the vulnerabilities that should always be kept in mind?
Response:
- A. DoS/DDoS
- B. Malware
- C. Backdoors
- D. Loss/theft of portable devices
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 29
When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would be used to perform only the desired operations?
- A. Honeypot
- B. Bastion
- C. Firewall
- D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
A bastion is a system that is exposed to the public Internet to perform a specific function, but it is highly restricted and secured to just that function. Any nonessential services and access are removed from the bastion so that security countermeasures and monitoring can be focused just on the bastion's specific duties. A honeypot is a system designed to look like a production system to entice attackers, but it does not contain any real data. It is used for learning about types of attacks and enabling countermeasures for them. A firewall is used within a network to limit access between IP addresses and ports. A proxy server provides additional security to and rulesets for network traffic that is allowed to pass through it to a service destination.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR objectives?
- A. RPO
- B. RTO
- C. RSL
- D. SRE
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recovery service level (RSL) is a percentage measure of the total typical production service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure.
NEW QUESTION # 31
The destruction of a cloud customer's data can be required by all of the following except ___________.
- A. Statute
- B. Contract
- C. The cloud provider's policy
- D. Regulation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?
- A. Cloud service business manager
- B. Cloud service operations manager
- C. Cloud service manager
- D. Cloud service deployment
Answer: A
Explanation:
The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business plans and customer relationships as well as processing financial transactions.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which kind of SSAE audit report is a cloud customer most likely to receive from a cloud provider?
- A. SOC 3
- B. SOC 1 Type 1
- C. SOC 1 Type 2
- D. SOC 2 Type 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The SOC 3 is the least detailed, so the provider is not concerned about revealing it. The SOC 1 Types 1 and 2 are about financial reporting, and not relevant. The SOC 2 Type 2 is much more detailed and will most likely be kept closely held by the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 34
DLP can be combined with what other security technology to enhance data controls?
- A. Hypervisor
- B. SIEM
- C. DRM
- D. Kerberos
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP can be combined with DRM to protect intellectual property; both are designed to deal with data that falls into special categories. SIEMs are used for monitoring event logs, not live data movement. Kerberos is an authentication mechanism. Hypervisors are used for virtualization.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which security concept, if implemented correctly, will protect the data on a system, even if a malicious actor gains access to the actual system?
- A. Access control
- B. Firewalls
- C. Sandboxing
- D. Encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
In any environment, data encryption is incredibly important to prevent unauthorized exposure of data either internally or externally. If a system is compromised by an attack, having the data encrypted on the system will prevent its unauthorized exposure or export, even with the system itself being exposed.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which process serves to prove the identity and credentials of a user requesting access to an application or data?
- A. Identification
- B. Repudiation
- C. Authentication
- D. Authorization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Authentication is the process of proving whether the identity presented by a user is true and valid. This can be done through common mechanisms such as user ID and password combinations or with more secure methods such as multifactor authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 37
With a federated identity system, what does the identity provider send information to after a successful authentication?
- A. Relying party
- B. Service relay
- C. Service originator
- D. Service relay
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Upon successful authentication, the identity provider sends an assertion with appropriate attributes to the relying party to grant access and assign appropriate roles to the user. The other terms provided are similar sounding to the correct term but are not actual components of a federated system.
NEW QUESTION # 38
The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles.
Which of the five principles must also be included when auditing any of the other four principles?
- A. Privacy
- B. Availability
- C. Security
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under the SOC guidelines, when any of the four principles other than security are being audited, which includes availability, confidentiality, processing integrity, and privacy, the security principle must also be included with the audit.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following best describes a sandbox?
- A. A space where you can safely execute malicious code to see what it does.
- B. An isolated space where untested code and experimentation can safely occur within the production environment.
- C. An isolated space where untested code and experimentation can safely occur separate from the production environment.
- D. An isolated space where transactions are protected from malicious software
Answer: C
Explanation:
Options C and B are also correct, but A is more general and incorporates them both. D is incorrect, because sandboxing does not take place in the production environment.
NEW QUESTION # 40
You are the security manager of a small firm that has just purchased a DLP solution to implement in your cloud-based production environment.
Which of these activities should you perform before deploying the tool?
- A. Harden all your routers
- B. Adjust the hypervisors
- C. Reconstruct your firewalls
- D. Survey your company's departments about the data under their control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
You were recently hired as a project manager at a major university to implement cloud services for the academic and administrative systems. Because the load and demand for services at a university are very cyclical in nature, commensurate with the academic calendar, which of the following aspects of cloud computing would NOT be a primary benefit to you?
- A. Broad network access
- B. Measured service
- C. Resource pooling
- D. On-demand self-service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Broad network access to cloud services, although it is an integral aspect of cloud computing, would not being a specific benefit to an organization with cyclical business needs. The other options would allow for lower costs during periods of low usage as well as provide the ability to expand services quickly and easily when needed for peak periods. Measured service allows a cloud customer to only use the resources it needs at the time, and resource pooling allows a cloud customer to access resources as needed. On-demand self-service enables the cloud customer to change its provisioned resources on its own, without the need to interact with the staff from the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 42
All of the following are techniques to enhance the portability of cloud data, in order to minimize the potential of vendor lock-in except:
- A. Ensure there are no physical limitations to moving
- B. Ensure favorable contract terms to support portability
- C. Use DRM and DLP solutions widely throughout the cloud operation
- D. Avoid proprietary data formats
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DRM and DLP are used for increased authentication/access control and egress monitoring, respectively, and would actually decrease portability instead of enhancing it.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A honeypot should contain _________ data.
- A. Sensitive
- B. Production
- C. Raw
- D. Useless
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system architecture?
- A. Software
- B. Keys
- C. Data
- D. Network
Answer: D
Explanation:
The network utilized is not one of the key components of an encryption system architecture. In fact, a network is not even required for encryption systems or the processing and protection of data. The data, software used for the encryption engine itself, and the keys used to implement the encryption are all core components of an encryption system architecture.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Patches do all the following except ____________.
Response:
- A. Solve cloud interoperability problems
- B. Address newly discovered vulnerabilities
- C. Address performance issues
- D. Add new features and capabilities to existing systems
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 46
Data masking can be used to provide all of the following functionality, except:
- A. Secure remote access
- B. Authentication of privileged users
- C. Test data in sandboxed environments
- D. Enforcing least privilege
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Data masking does not support authentication in any way. All the others are excellent use cases for data masking.
NEW QUESTION # 47
When using a PaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?
- A. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The provider does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- B. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- C. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the consumer supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
- D. To deploy onto the cloud infrastructure provider-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools that the provider supports. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to "The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing," in PaaS, "the capability provided to the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the provider. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly configuration settings for the application-hosting environment.
NEW QUESTION # 48
An organization could have many reasons that are common throughout the industry to activate a BCDR situation. Which of the following is NOT a typical reason to activate a BCDR plan?
Response:
- A. Staff loss
- B. Natural disaster
- C. Terrorist attack
- D. Utility outage
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 49
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