312-50v13 Dumps PDF New [2025] Ultimate Study Guide
312-50v13 Exam Dumps PDF Updated Dump from Exam4Docs Guaranteed Success
NEW QUESTION # 210
Fred is the network administrator for his company. Fred is testing an internal switch. From an external IP address, Fred wants to try and trick this switch into thinking it already has established a session with his computer. How can Fred accomplish this?
- A. Fred can accomplish this by sending an IP packet with the RST/SIN bit and the source address of his computer.
- B. Fred can send an IP packet with the ACK bit set to zero and the source address of the switch.
- C. He can send an IP packet with the SYN bit and the source address of his computer.
- D. Fred can send an IP packet to the switch with the ACK bit and the source address of his machine.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In TCP session hijacking or spoofing:
* An attacker sends a spoofed packet with the ACK bit set and a guessed (or predicted) sequence number to fool the receiver into thinking it's a legitimate continuation of an existing session.
Fred is simulating this by sending a TCP packet with the ACK bit and using his own IP as the source, trying to trick the switch into believing it's part of an already established session.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
* Module 11: Session Hijacking
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 11: TCP Session Hijacking and Spoofing TechniquesRFC 793 - TCP State Machine
NEW QUESTION # 211
Jake, a professional hacker, installed spyware on a target iPhone to spy on the target user's activities. He can take complete control of the target mobile device by jailbreaking the device remotely and record audio, capture screenshots, and monitor all phone calls and SMS messages. What is the type of spyware that Jake used to infect the target device?
- A. Zscaler
- B. DroidSheep
- C. Trident
- D. Androrat
Answer: C
Explanation:
Trident is a highly sophisticated spyware tool used in mobile surveillance operations. It exploits multiple zero- day vulnerabilities to jailbreak iPhones remotely and grant full control to the attacker. It is famously associated with the Pegasus spyware, which was able to:
* Record calls and ambient sound
* Capture screenshots
* Read SMS, emails, and contacts
* Monitor GPS and application use
As per CEH v13:
* Trident uses a chain of exploits to compromise iOS devices without physical access.
* It was used in highly targeted attacks against journalists, activists, and government officials.
Incorrect Options:
* A. DroidSheep is an Android tool for session hijacking on unsecured Wi-Fi.
* B. Androrat is a RAT for Android devices.
* C. Zscaler is a cloud security platform, not malware.
Reference - CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 17: Hacking Mobile Platforms
Section: "iOS Malware"
Subsection: "Spyware like Trident and Pegasus"
NEW QUESTION # 212
Fingerprinting an Operating System helps a cracker because:
- A. It informs the cracker of which vulnerabilities he may be able to exploit on your system
- B. It defines exactly what software you have installed
- C. It doesn't depend on the patches that have been applied to fix existing security holes
- D. It opens a security-delayed window based on the port being scanned
Answer: A
Explanation:
OS fingerprinting helps attackers identify the operating system and version running on a target host. This allows them to:
* Determine potential vulnerabilities
* Choose appropriate exploits for the OS version and configuration
* Bypass ineffective defenses
From CEH v13 Courseware:
* Module 3: Scanning Networks
* Topic: Active and Passive OS Fingerprinting
CEH v13 Study Guide states:
"Fingerprinting identifies the OS type/version and helps attackers choose specific exploits that apply to that system." Incorrect Options:
* A: Software enumeration is different from OS fingerprinting.
* B/C: Misleading or incorrect in this context.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 3: OS Fingerprinting and ReconnaissanceNmap OS Detection (nmap.org)
NEW QUESTION # 213
A Security Engineer at a medium-sized accounting firm has been tasked with discovering how much information can be obtained from the firm's public facing web servers. The engineer decides to start by using netcat to port 80.
The engineer receives this output:
HTTP/1.1 200 OK
Server: Microsoft-IIS/6
Expires: Tue, 17 Jan 2011 01:41:33 GMT
Date: Mon, 16 Jan 2011 01:41:33 GMT
Content-Type: text/html
Accept-Ranges: bytes
Last Modified: Wed, 28 Dec 2010 15:32:21 GMT
ETag:"b0aac0542e25c31:89d"
Content-Length: 7369
Which of the following is an example of what the engineer performed?
- A. Banner grabbing
- B. Whois database query
- C. SQL injection
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 214
An ethical hacker is hired to conduct a comprehensive network scan of a large organization that strongly suspects potential intrusions into their internal systems. The hacker decides to employ a combination of scanning tools to obtain a detailed understanding of the network. Which sequence of actions would provide the most comprehensive information about the network's status?
- A. Initiate with Nmap for a ping sweep, then use Metasploit to scan for open ports and services, and finally use Hping3 to perform remote OS fingerprinting
- B. Use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet, then use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts, and finally use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities
- C. Start with Hping3 for a UDP scan on random ports, then use Nmap for a version detection scan, and finally use Metasploit to exploit detected vulnerabilities
- D. Begin with NetScanTools Pro for a general network scan, then use Nmap for OS detection and version detection, and finally perform an SYN flooding with Hping3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sequence of actions that would provide the most comprehensive information about the network's status is to use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet, then use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts, and finally use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities. This sequence of actions works as follows:
* Use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet: This action is used to discover the active hosts on the network by sending ICMP echo request packets to each possible IP address on the subnet and waiting for ICMP echo reply packets from the hosts. Hping3 is a command-line tool that can craft and send custom packets, such as TCP, UDP, or ICMP, and analyze the responses. By using Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan, the hacker can quickly and efficiently identify the live hosts on the network, as well as their response times and packet loss rates12.
* Use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts: This action is used to scan the open ports and services on the active hosts by sending TCP SYN packets to a range of ports and analyzing the TCP responses. Nmap is a popular and powerful tool that can perform various types of network scans, such as port scanning, service detection, OS detection, and vulnerability scanning. By using Nmap for a SYN scan, the hacker can determine the state of the ports on the active hosts, such as open, closed, filtered, or unfiltered, as well as the services and protocols running on them. A SYN scan is also known as a stealth scan, as it does not complete the TCP three-way handshake and thus avoids logging on the target system34.
* Use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities: This action is used to exploit the vulnerabilities on the active hosts by using pre-built or custom modules that leverage the open ports and services.
Metasploit is a framework that contains a collection of tools and modules for penetration testing and exploitation. By using Metasploit, the hacker can launch various attacks on the active hosts, such as remote code execution, privilege escalation, or backdoor installation, and gain access to the target system or data. Metasploit can also be used to perform post-exploitation tasks, such as gathering information, maintaining persistence, or pivoting to other systems .
The other options are not as comprehensive as option B for the following reasons:
* A. Initiate with Nmap for a ping sweep, then use Metasploit to scan for open ports and services, and finally use Hping3 to perform remote OS fingerprinting: This option is not optimal because it does not use the tools in the most efficient and effective way. Nmap can perform a ping sweep, but it is slower and less flexible than Hping3, which can craft and send custom packets. Metasploit can scan for open ports and services, but it is more suitable for exploitation than scanning, and it relies on Nmap for port scanning anyway. Hping3 can perform remote OS fingerprinting, but it is less accurate and reliable than Nmap, which can use various techniques and probes to determine the OS type and version13 .
* C. Start with Hping3 for a UDP scan on random ports, then use Nmap for a version detection scan, and finally use Metasploit to exploit detected vulnerabilities: This option is not effective because it does not use the best scanning methods and techniques. Hping3 can perform a UDP scan, but it is slower and less reliable than a TCP scan, as UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not always generate responses. Scanning random ports is also inefficient and incomplete, as it may miss important ports or services. Nmap can perform a version detection scan, but it is more useful to perform a port scan first, as it can narrow down the scope and speed up the scan. Metasploit can exploit detected vulnerabilities, but it is not clear how the hacker can identify the vulnerabilities without performing a vulnerability scan first13 .
* D. Begin with NetScanTools Pro for a general network scan, then use Nmap for OS detection and version detection, and finally perform an SYN flooding with Hping3: This option is not comprehensive because it does not cover all the aspects and objectives of a network scan. NetScanTools Pro is a graphical tool that can perform various network tasks, such as ping, traceroute, DNS lookup, or port scan, but it is less powerful and versatile than Nmap or Hping3, which can perform more advanced and customized scans. Nmap can perform OS detection and version detection, but it is more useful to perform a port scan first, as it can provide more information and insights into the target system. Performing an SYN flooding with Hping3 is not a network scan, but a denial-of-service attack, which can disrupt the network and alert the target system, and it is not an ethical or legal action for a hired hacker13 .
References:
* 1: Hping - Wikipedia
* 2: Hping3 Examples - NetworkProGuide
* 3: Nmap - Wikipedia
* 4: Nmap Tutorial: From Discovery to Exploits - Part 1: Introduction to Nmap | HackerTarget.com
* : Metasploit Project - Wikipedia
* : Metasploit Unleashed - Offensive Security
* : NetScanTools Pro - Northwest Performance Software, Inc.
NEW QUESTION # 215
Elliot is in the process of exploiting a web application that uses SQL as a back-end database. He's determined that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection, and has introduced conditional timing delays into injected queries to determine whether they are successful. What type of SQL injection is Elliot most likely performing?
- A. NoSQL injection
- B. Error-based SQL injection
- C. Union-based SQL injection
- D. Blind SQL injection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 216
To determine if a software program properly handles a wide range of invalid input, a form of automated testing can be used to randomly generate invalid input in an attempt to crash the program.
What term is commonly used when referring to this type of testing?
- A. Fuzzing
- B. Randomizing
- C. Bounding
- D. Mutating
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 217
While browsing his Facebook teed, Matt sees a picture one of his friends posted with the caption. "Learn more about your friends!", as well as a number of personal questions. Matt is suspicious and texts his friend, who confirms that he did indeed post it. With assurance that the post is legitimate. Matt responds to the questions on the post, a few days later. Mates bank account has been accessed, and the password has been changed. What most likely happened?
- A. Matt's computer was infected with a keylogger.
- B. Matt's bank-account login information was brute forced.
- C. Matt Inadvertently provided his password when responding to the post.
- D. Matt inadvertently provided the answers to his security questions when responding to the post.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 218
As a cybersecurity analyst for SecureNet, you are performing a security assessment of a new mobile payment application. One of your primary concerns is the secure storage of customer data on the device. The application stores sensitive information such as credit card details and personal identification numbers (PINs) on the device. Which of the following measures would best ensure the security of this data?
- A. Enable GPS tracking for all devices using the app.
- B. Implement biometric authentication for app access.
- C. Regularly update the app to the latest version.
- D. Encrypt all sensitive data stored on the device.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encrypting all sensitive data stored on the device is the best measure to ensure the security of this data, because it protects the data from unauthorized access or disclosure, even if the device is lost, stolen, or compromised. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Only authorized parties who have the correct key or algorithm can decrypt and access the data.
Encryption can be applied to data at rest, such as files or databases, or data in transit, such as network traffic or messages. Encryption can prevent attackers from stealing or tampering with the customer data stored on the device, such as credit card details and PINs, which can cause financial or identity fraud.
The other options are not as effective or sufficient as encryption for securing the customer data stored on the device. Implementing biometric authentication for app access may provide an additional layer of security, but it does not protect the data from being accessed by other means, such as malware, physical access, or backup extraction. Enabling GPS tracking for all devices using the app may help locate the device in case of loss or theft, but it does not prevent the data from being accessed by unauthorized parties, and it may also pose privacy risks. Regularly updating the app to the latest version may help fix bugs or vulnerabilities, but it does not guarantee the security of the data, especially if the app does not use encryption or other security features.
References:
Securely Storing Data | Security.org
Data Storage Security: 5 Best Practices to Secure Your Data
M9: Insecure Data Storage | OWASP Foundation
NEW QUESTION # 219
When you are getting information about a web server, it is very important to know the HTTP Methods (GET, POST, HEAD, PUT, DELETE, TRACE) that are available because there are two critical methods (PUT and DELETE). PUT can upload a file to the server and DELETE can delete a file from the server. You can detect all these methods (GET, POST, HEAD, DELETE, PUT, TRACE) using NMAP script engine. What Nmap script will help you with this task?
- A. http-git
- B. http-headers
- C. http enum
- D. http-methods
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 220
Geena, a cloud architect, uses a master component in the Kubernetes cluster architecture that scans newly generated pods and allocates a node to them. This component can also assign nodes based on factors such as the overall resource requirement, data locality, software/hardware/policy restrictions, and internal workload interventions.
Which of the following master components is explained in the above scenario?
- A. Kube-apiserver
- B. Kube-scheduler
- C. Etcd cluster
- D. Kube-controller-manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
In CEH v13 Module 16: Cloud Computing and Container Security, Kubernetes components are explained for understanding container orchestration risks.
Kube-scheduler is the master node component responsible for:
Assigning newly created pods to available nodes.
Evaluating each pod's resource requirements.
Considering node affinity/anti-affinity, data locality, hardware restrictions, etc.
Ensuring workload balancing across nodes.
Other Options:
A). Kube-controller-manager: Manages control loops for replication and status.
C). Kube-apiserver: Acts as the entry point for all REST commands.
D). Etcd: A key-value store used to save configuration data.
Reference:
Module 16 - Kubernetes Architecture and Security Risks
CEH eBook: Kubernetes Scheduler Role in Pod Lifecycle
NEW QUESTION # 221
Clark is gathering sensitive information about a competitor and uses a tool to input the target's server IP address to identify network range, OS, and topology. What tool is he using?
- A. AOL
- B. ARIN
- C. Baidu
- D. DuckDuckGo
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARIN (American Registry for Internet Numbers) is a Regional Internet Registry (RIR) that provides information about IP address allocations and autonomous systems in North America. It's used for WHOIS lookups and footprinting in reconnaissance.
NEW QUESTION # 222
Bob, a system administrator at TPNQM SA, concluded one day that a DMZ is not needed if he properly configures the firewall to allow access just to servers/ports, which can have direct internet access, and block the access to workstations.
Bob also concluded that DMZ makes sense just when a stateful firewall is available, which is not the case of TPNQM SA.
In this context, what can you say?
- A. Bob can be right since DMZ does not make sense when combined with stateless firewalls
- B. Bob is partially right. DMZ does not make sense when a stateless firewall is available
- C. Bob is partially right. He does not need to separate networks if he can create rules by destination IPs, one by one
- D. Bob is totally wrong. DMZ is always relevant when the company has internet servers and workstations
Answer: D
Explanation:
A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a physical or logical subnet that separates an internal local area network (LAN) from untrusted networks-typically the Internet. It allows an organization to provide external-facing services while isolating internal systems from direct exposure.
From CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 13: Hacking Web Applications
Module 14: Hacking Web Servers
Module 1: Introduction to Ethical Hacking - Security Architecture Concepts CEH v13 clearly outlines:
"A DMZ is critical when deploying Internet-facing servers such as web servers, FTP servers, or mail servers.
It provides a buffer zone that allows public access to specific resources while keeping the internal network isolated." Bob's assumption is flawed for several reasons:
DMZs can be implemented even with stateless firewalls using strict access control rules.
Relying solely on IP-based filtering is error-prone and doesn't offer layered defense.
A DMZ provides an essential layer of segmentation, protecting internal assets from compromised public servers.
Incorrect Options:
A/D: DMZ can still make sense even with stateless firewalls if properly configured.
B: IP filtering is insufficient as a sole security measure; does not replace the need for network segmentation.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 1 & 14 # Topic: DMZ Design and PurposeNIST SP 800-41 Rev.
1 - Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy
NEW QUESTION # 223
If you send a TCP ACK segment to a known closed port on a firewall but it does not respond with an RST, what do you know about the firewall you are scanning?
- A. It is a non-stateful firewall.
- B. There is no firewall in place.
- C. It is a stateful firewall
- D. This event does not tell you anything about the firewall.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In CEH v13 Module 03: Scanning Networks, the behavior of firewalls in response to ACK scans is described in detail, especially regarding stateful vs. stateless firewalls.
An ACK scan (nmap -sA) is primarily used for firewall rule analysis. Here's how it works:
When you send a TCP ACK segment:
If the port is closed and no firewall is present, the target should respond with a TCP RST packet.
If a stateless (non-stateful) firewall is used, it typically allows or blocks packets based only on rules about IP addresses, ports, and protocol type, without tracking session state.
If a stateful firewall is used, it keeps track of connection states. Therefore:
An unsolicited ACK packet (not part of any established session) will be silently dropped, because it doesn't correspond to any active connection.
No RST is sent back because the firewall suppresses it, recognizing it as potentially malicious or out of context.
Therefore:
No RST response = packet was silently dropped.
Silent dropping of unsolicited ACK packets = Stateful Firewall Behavior.
Option Analysis:
A). There is no firewall in place
# Incorrect. If there were no firewall, an RST would be sent from the closed port.
B). This event does not tell you anything about the firewall
# Incorrect. The lack of a response is actually meaningful and implies stateful filtering behavior.
C). It is a stateful firewall
Correct. A stateful firewall inspects the packet, sees no valid session, and drops it silently.
D). It is a non-stateful firewall
# Incorrect. A non-stateful firewall would typically not inspect session state, and you'd still expect to see a response (likely an RST).
Reference from CEH v13 Study Guide and Courseware:
Module 03 - Scanning Networks, Section: Nmap Scanning Techniques # TCP ACK Scan CEH Engage Labs - Network Scanning Phase: Firewall Rule Detection using ACK Scans
NEW QUESTION # 224
Elante company has recently hired James as a penetration tester. He was tasked with performing enumeration on an organization's network. In the process of enumeration, James discovered a service that is accessible to external sources. This service runs directly on port 21. What is the service enumerated byjames in the above scenario?
- A. Network File System (NFS)
- B. Remote procedure call (RPC)
- C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
- D. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 225
A post-breach forensic investigation revealed that a known vulnerability in Apache Struts was to blame for the Equifax data breach that affected 143 million customers. A fix was available from the software vendor for several months prior 10 the Intrusion. This Is likely a failure in which of the following security processes?
- A. Patch management
- B. vendor risk management
- C. Secure deployment lifecycle
- D. Security awareness training
Answer: A
Explanation:
Patch management is that the method that helps acquire, test and install multiple patches (code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a pc, enabling systems to remain updated on existing patches and determining that patches are the suitable ones. Managing patches so becomes simple and simple.
Patch Management is usually done by software system firms as a part of their internal efforts to mend problems with the various versions of software system programs and also to assist analyze existing software system programs and discover any potential lack of security features or different upgrades.
Software patches help fix those problems that exist and are detected solely once the software's initial unharness. Patches mostly concern security while there are some patches that concern the particular practicality of programs as well.
NEW QUESTION # 226
A well-resourced attacker intends to launch a highly disruptive DDoS attack against a major online retailer.
The attacker aims to exhaust all the network resources while keeping their identity concealed. Their method should be resistant to simple defensive measures such as IP-based blocking. Based on these objectives, which of the following attack strategies would be most effective?
- A. The attacker should execute a simple ICMP flood attack from a single IP, exploiting the retailer's ICMP processing
- B. The attacker should leverage a botnet to launch a Pulse Wave attack, sending high-volume traffic pulses at regular intervals
- C. The attacker should instigate a protocol-based SYN flood attack, consuming connection state tables on the retailer's servers
- D. The attacker should initiate a volumetric flood attack using a single compromised machine to overwhelm the retailer's network bandwidth
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Pulse Wave attack is a type of DDoS attack that uses a botnet to send high-volume traffic pulses at regular intervals, typically lasting for a few minutes each. The attacker can adjust the frequency and duration of the pulses to maximize the impact and evade detection. A Pulse Wave attack can exhaust the network resources of the target, as well as the resources of any DDoS mitigation service that the target may use. A Pulse Wave attack can also conceal the attacker's identity, as the traffic originates from multiple sources that are part of the botnet. A Pulse Wave attack can bypass simple defensive measures, such as IP-based blocking, as the traffic can appear legitimate and vary in source IP addresses.
The other options are less effective or feasible for the attacker's objectives. A protocol-based SYN flood attack is a type of DDoS attack that exploits the TCP handshake process by sending a large number of SYN requests to the target server, without completing the connection. This consumes the connection state tables on the server, preventing it from accepting new connections. However, a SYN flood attack can be easily detected and mitigated by using SYN cookies or firewalls. A SYN flood attack can also expose the attacker's identity, as the source IP addresses of the SYN requests can be traced back to the attacker. An ICMP flood attack is a type of DDoS attack that sends a large number of ICMP packets, such as ping requests, to the target server, overwhelming its ICMP processing capacity. However, an ICMP flood attack from a single IP can be easily blocked by using IP-based filtering or disabling ICMP responses. An ICMP flood attack can also reveal the attacker's identity, as the source IP address of the ICMP packets can be identified. A volumetric flood attack is a type of DDoS attack that sends a large amount of traffic to the target server, saturating its network bandwidth and preventing legitimate users from accessing it. However, a volumetric flood attack using a single compromised machine may not be sufficient to overwhelm the network bandwidth of a major online retailer, as the attacker's machine may have limited bandwidth itself. A volumetric flood attack can also be detected and mitigated by using traffic shaping or rate limiting techniques. References:
* Pulse Wave DDoS Attacks: What You Need to Know
* DDoS Attack Prevention: 7 Effective Mitigation Strategies
* DDoS Attack Types: Glossary of Terms
* DDoS Attacks: What They Are and How to Protect Yourself
* DDoS Attack Prevention: How to Protect Your Website
NEW QUESTION # 227
There have been concerns in your network that the wireless network component is not sufficiently secure.
You perform a vulnerability scan of the wireless network and find that it is using an old encryption protocol that was designed to mimic wired encryption, what encryption protocol is being used?
- A. WPA
- B. RADIUS
- C. WEP
- D. WPA3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) may be a security protocol, laid out in the IEEE wireless local area network (Wi-Fi) standard, 802.11b, that's designed to supply a wireless local area network (WLAN) with A level of security and privacy like what's usually expected of a wired LAN. A wired local area network (LAN) is usually protected by physical security mechanisms (controlled access to a building, for example) that are effective for a controlled physical environment, but could also be ineffective for WLANs because radio waves aren't necessarily bound by the walls containing the network. WEP seeks to determine similar protection thereto offered by the wired network's physical security measures by encrypting data transmitted over the WLAN. encoding protects the vulnerable wireless link between clients and access points; once this measure has been taken, other typical LAN security mechanisms like password protection, end-to-end encryption, virtual private networks (VPNs), and authentication are often put in situ to make sure privacy.A research group from the University of California at Berkeley recently published a report citing "major security flaws" in WEP that left WLANs using the protocol susceptible to attacks (called wireless equivalent privacy attacks).
within the course of the group's examination of the technology, they were ready to intercept and modify transmissions and gain access to restricted networks. The Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance (WECA) claims that WEP - which is included in many networking products - was never intended to be the only security mechanism for a WLAN, and that, in conjunction with traditional security practices, it's very effective.
NEW QUESTION # 228
How does a denial-of-service attack work?
- A. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network
- B. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service
- C. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication
- D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 229
What did the following commands determine?
[Image Output of USER2SID and SID2USER showing that SID ending in -500 corresponds to user Joe on domain EARTH]
- A. These commands demonstrate that the guest account has been disabled
- B. That the true administrator is Joe
- C. These commands demonstrate that the guest account has NOT been disabled
- D. Issued alone, these commands prove nothing
- E. That the Joe account has a SID of 500
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the Windows security model, SID ending in -500 is reserved for the built-in Administrator account. The SID seen in the image:
S-1-5-21-343818398-789336058-1343024091-500 # maps to user Joe
This proves that Joe is the true built-in administrator account on the domain EARTH.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
* Module 4: Enumeration
* Topic: SID Enumeration and Account Discovery
CEH v13 Study Guide states:
"In Windows, the account with RID 500 is always the default Administrator account. Even if renamed, its SID remains ending in -500. Enumeration of this SID allows attackers to identify privileged accounts." Incorrect Options:
* A: Incomplete - it is not just that Joe has SID 500, but that SID 500 means Joe is the administrator.
* B/C: These commands don't validate Guest account status.
* E: Incorrect - these commands explicitly prove administrator identity.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 4: Windows Enumeration # RID 500 IdentifierMicrosoft Documentation: Well-Known SIDs
NEW QUESTION # 230
The tools which receive event logs from servers, network equipment, and applications, and perform analysis and correlation on those logs, and can generate alarms for security relevant issues, are known as what?
- A. Vulnerability Scanner
- B. network Sniffer
- C. Intrusion prevention Server
- D. Security incident and event Monitoring
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 231
You are a security officer of a company. You had an alert from IDS that indicates that one PC on your Intranet is connected to a blacklisted IP address (C2 Server) on the Internet. The IP address was blacklisted just before the alert. You are starting an investigation to roughly analyze the severity of the situation. Which of the following is appropriate to analyze?
- A. Internet Firewall/Proxy log
- B. Event logs on domain controller
- C. IDS log
- D. Event logs on the PC
Answer: A
Explanation:
In CEH v13 Module 04: Enumeration and Module 06: Malware Threats, when investigating Command-and- Control (C2) communication, it is important to determine whether the communication actually occurred and what data was sent.
C). Internet Firewall/Proxy log
Best source to confirm outbound connections to external IPs.
Proxy logs show which internal host made the connection, the timestamp, and sometimes even URL and payload.
Firewalls can indicate port usage, traffic volume, and connection duration.
This data gives a direct view of how severe the incident is, whether data exfiltration occurred, and which internal system is affected.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective Initially:
A). IDS Log: Only tells you that an alert was generated. May be false positive or triggered by a failed connection.
B). Event logs on Domain Controller: Useful for user account behavior, but not for network connections.
D). Event logs on the PC: May lack detail or be tampered with by malware.
Reference:
Module 06 - Incident Response Triage & Forensics Logs
CEH iLabs: Proxy Log Analysis and Malware C2 Detection
NEW QUESTION # 232
MX record priority increases as the number increases. (True/False.)
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
MX (Mail Exchange) records in DNS define the mail servers responsible for receiving email for a domain.
Each MX record has a priority value.
Important concept:
* A lower number indicates a higher priority.
* Email servers attempt delivery to the mail server with the lowest priority first.
For example:
If MX records are:
* 10 mail1.example.com
* 20 mail2.example.com
Then mail1 will be tried first. If it fails, mail2 will be used.
So the statement "MX record priority increases as the number increases" is false.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 3: DNS Records # MX Record Priority ExplanationRFC 974 - Mail Routing and the Domain System
NEW QUESTION # 233
Which of the following web vulnerabilities would an attacker be attempting to exploit if they delivered the following input?
<!DOCTYPE blah [ < IENTITY trustme SYSTEM "file:///etc/passwd" > ] >
- A. XXE
- B. SQLi
- C. IDOR
- D. XXS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 234
......
Pass Your ECCouncil Exam with 312-50v13 Exam Dumps: https://www.exam4docs.com/312-50v13-study-questions.html
312-50v13 Exam Dumps - ECCouncil Practice Test Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Rk-D_exjH5xz4YrDjiJiXmAgLqmXAtSL

